I fully understood the GOP had used it in the past and more or less WHAT doing it was supposed to accomplish, but I had been reading in places that the strategic reason it was being done was so that none of the Dems would have to directly vote yes on it and suffer backlash from having voted yes on something that was unpopular. Was that correct at least? If so, then I was just curious how it couldn't be seen that with the Dems having pushed this option, from a backlash standpoint that it's effectively all of them voting yes.
Anyways, kind of moot issue now that they're not doing it. I think they made the best choice but was just trying to understand why they were so eager to try that in the first place.
__________________
Want to crush it in mainstream with Facebook ads? Hit me up.
|